When I used to read newsgroups on a regular basis, there was a recurring theme for posts about the morality of selling yourself as a slave. Basically, the argument ran like this: You own yourself, therefore you own your labor, therefore you own the fruits of your labor. Rights normally entail the ability to dispose of something as well as to have or use it. I have a right to live, and that implies a right to commit suicide, I have a right to my own labor, therefore I have a right to withhold my own labor, I have a right to property, therefore I have a right to sell property. If I so choose, I may sell myself as a slave to someone else. Let's stipulate also to the idea that I
do not have a right to kidnap and/or sell other people against their will as slaves, or to commit my progeny to slavery.
In all of those discussions, however, I don't believe that I ever once saw any discussion of whether or not it was moral to
own slaves. That would be a strange state of affairs if everyone agreed that people have the right to sell themselves, but they don't have a right to buy said product. Let's explore that.
Under what circumstances would we agree that the slaveowner is a humane, i.e. "moral", slaveowner?
I would say that he must (1) honor the requirements of the contract (implied or otherwise) that brought the slave into his possession, and (2) provide adequate food, clothing, and shelter in exchange for total ownership of the slave's labor. What else? Would it be okay to have the slave work constantly and in dangerous situations? I believe that most people would agree that he needs rest, but that the risk of the work would be negotiable (since risk-free work is not an option). Would it be okay to send him into a solitary confinement holding cell at the end of the workday, and feed him through a slot? I think most people would agree that the slave should be allowed some human interaction and therefore entertainment. However, I do think that the owner should be allowed to control the slave's interaction especially with respect to the opposite sex. After all, the original agreement was that the owner provide the basics of life support, and a wife or husband and especially children would burden the slave and therefore by extension the owner. But what about surgical or chemical sterilization?
Granted, that is all intuitive, stream-of-consciousness reasoning on the issue, but how realistic is it? What parallels can we draw? I can think of two similar relationships: parent/children and warden/convict. Parents are required to provide the basics for their children and usually do try to control their reproductive rights. Wardens, similarly (especially if you mean
Joe Arpaio). What differences can we identify? Neither children nor inmates enter into the relationship voluntarily (an argument can be made that the inmates do by virtue of committing crimes), but surprisingly the parents and the wardens do enter voluntarily. Both are also considered to be moral, especially to the degree that they succeed. Most people I think would draw the line at forced sterilization on the basis that the slave (like the child and the inmate) may one day negotiate their termination of the relationship, and should be returned "whole" to society.
So if we have a slaveowner who buys a slave's freedom from the slave him/herself, is this a moral transaction? Would you do it, if you could?
I think that I would not, unless I could be convinced that the slave was somehow made better off by my ownership. There was a Heinlein short story in which this was the case. I suppose that I am a rule-utilitarian on that issue on the basis that slavery is repugnant.
So, you don't think such actual, voluntary slavery exists? What about the traditional husband/authority and wife/homemaker relationship? What about the
dom/sub relationship?
UPDATE: What about Oskar Schindler? He was a slave owner, especially in the sense that I have defined it (he profited from the Jews' labor, he provided basic necessities). I think you could make an argument that he was moral.
Labels: philosophy