Al Maxey reminds me that it has been six weeks since posting to our discussion. Al assumes that this means that he defeated me in this discussion. No, it just means that I have shorted myself of the time needed to uncover all of Maxey's facades. Dead lines for term papers, class assignments and other issues have taken precedence over this discussion. Several of these issues were not issues when we began our discussion. It may be that Al would like to plan to meet with me in a public discussion of these matters? We could plan specific dates, find a central location, and get through the pertinent matters of the doctrine of demons Maxey teaches. Dear friends, please do not hold your breath waiting for Al Maxey to meet such a challenge as this.

Another solution would be for Al to start dealing with the specifics as they are set before him instead of clouding the issue by dumping hundreds of meaningless words and excess baggage into the pages of this discussion.

Is Al Maxey a false teacher on the subject of marriage, divorce and remarriage? The Bible answers in the affirmative. Jesus Christ says that one who puts away a spouse for any reason other than fornication and marries another, keeps on committing adultery. Jesus also affirms that those who die in adultery are doomed to a devil's hell. Al Maxey denies this absolute truth from God's word. While he acknowledges that God's will has not been followed in cases as noted above, Maxey denies that those divorcing and remarrying, without having the authority given by Jesus, live in sin. Yes this makes Al Maxey's doctrine false doctrine and makes Al Maxey a false teacher.

I will let Al, in his rebuttal, tell you all of the wonderful things in his book which I have not mentioned. Friends, my job in this discussion has been to prove that Al Maxey is a false teacher, and that he has taught error in his book. This has been accomplished and on more subjects than marriage, divorce and remarriage. After attempting to answer some of those arguments, Al may say that our teachings are close together, but nothing could be farther from the truth.

Friends, after reading Al's book let me encourage you to read God's book. You will find that our Lord was very specific on this subject. So clear is Jesus that most people off of the street can understand the truth of the matter. You can read what Al wrote for yourselves. I will begin in this setting to present to you the truth as presented in the Bible. In the mean time, it may be that Al will consider moving this discussion to a public forum. If he is so confident that his arguments are beyond answer, then let him take them to a public forum. The summer of 2001 would be a wonderful time to meet in a public forum.

WHAT DOES THE BIBLE TEACH ON MATTHEW 19:9?

Christ the Lord gave mankind one and only one exception to the rule of one man for one woman for life. That exception is listed in Matthew 19:9. No other New Testament passage provides an exception in addition to that of Matthew 19:9. Notice the words used by our Lord and recorded by an inspired penman:

"And I say unto you..." --- Jesus Christ is the one to whom all men are to listen (John 12:48; Matt. 17:5). The words of Jesus will judge all people who have lived since the last Pentecost of the Jewish economy (2 Cor. 5:10; Rev. 20:12). Accountable people who have never heard the gospel of Christ are lost because they have transgressed the law of the gospel (James 1:14-15; I John 3:4; 5:17; John 3:19-20). Friends, if people who have never heard the law of the gospel are not amenable to it, then Christians hinder the world by teaching it the law of the gospel. Neither Shammai, Hillel, nor any other is the authority on marriage, divorce and remarriage. Jesus is the only authority on that subject, he is the one to be heard!

"...Whosoever..." --- a relative pronoun linking the protasis to the apodosis ("committeth adultery"). " Whosoever... (or "if anyone...."), then he committeth adultery." It has been said by some that "whosoever" as used in Matthew 19:9 means only the Jews. Others have said that it refers only to Christians. By use of the inductive method of Bible study, one can easily learn that both of these ideas are false.

Who is speaking? Jesus, the one whom all men are to hear (John 12:48). To whom is he speaking? Jesus is speaking to some Pharisees (vs. 3) and to his disciples (vs. 10). It is evident that the "Whosoever" includes both Jews and disciples. In Jesus' discourse he also took his audience back to the beginning and told them that God's current law on marriage, divorce and remarriage, is the same now as it was in the beginning. When this factor is induced into the information base, the meaning of "Whosoever" becomes clearer.

It is also helpful to examine how Jesus used this word in similar constructions in other places. Consider this statement, "whosoever shall say to his father or his mother, It is a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me; And honour not his father or his mother, he shall be free. Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition" (Matt. 15:5-6). It is easy to understand that Jesus means anyone who meets the aforementioned conditions. Yes there are parameters to consider here. This statement must be considered in light of Exodus 20:12. Equally true is the fact that Jesus identifies any person who meets the above conditions.

Consider Matthew 7:24: "Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine, and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise man, which built his house upon a rock." Again Jesus mentions a state in which one exists, if he meets certain conditions. Any person who does A (hears his word) and B (does what is commanded by his word), is abiding in C (a condition likened unto a wise man which built his house upon a rock).

Also notice these two statements: "Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my Father which is in heaven. But whosoever shall deny me before men, him will I also deny before my Father which is in heaven" (Matt. 10:32-33). Whosoever, that is any person, who does A (confesses Jesus before men) will be B (confessed by Jesus before his Father). On the other hand, any person who does A (denies Jesus before men) will be B (denied by Jesus before his Father in heaven).

These samplings are complete enough to deduce the sum of the matter at hand. Jesus said "whosoever" meaning if any one, Jew or Gentile, disciple or non-believer, were to meet the stated conditions A and B (the protasis) then he exists in C (the apodosis). C is a condition of continuous reality. That is, as long as the any one meets A and B, then he remains in C.

What about all of the whosoevers who do A and B without realizing that A and B are sinful behaviors, which result in a life of sin? First of all, it is not man's place to change God's law just because man does not understand why God commanded a thing. In the second place, God did everything possible to give all men an opportunity to obey his will. There is, or could be, a Bible in every home in America. Ignorance of the law never excuses sin (Rom. 4:15; 7:7; Gal. 3:19). Finally, if they desire to be forgiven of their adultery, they must repent of their unauthorized marriage. That is, they must divorce according to the laws of the land and stop engaging in the unauthorized act (John 8:4).

"...Shall put away his wife..." --- refers to divorce. This divorce may allow one the right to marry again, or it may forbid one to ever take another wife. If one divorces his spouse for any reason except the one reason authorized by God, God will not grant that person the right to marry again. Jesus gave men one, and only one, God authorized reason for divorce which carries the right of remarriage. Jesus said except it be for fornication. One may not divorce his spouse for any other reason than fornication and marry another spouse.

Fornication refers to any act of illicit sexual contact (see John 8:4), including homosexuality and bestiality. In a marriage, one who has honored the covenant of marriage has the Lord's approval to divorce a spouse guilty of fornication, and to marry another. He does not have to divorce his unfaithful mate, but he has the right. If he were to forgive the guilty party's act or acts of fornication, then he would also forfeit his right to divorce his wife and marry another.

Many assume that other passages in the New Testament provide exceptions in addition to the exception of Matthew 19:9. According to the axioms of hermeneutics, truth must accord with truth. Applying consistency to this axiom would be a tremendous stride toward religious unity. If Jesus gave other exceptions to God's law for remarriage, either directly or through inspired men, then why did he use the terminology recorded by Matthew? How could truth accord with truth if there are other exceptions? Jesus clearly taught that the basis of a divorce carrying the right of remarriage, is fornication only. If there are other reasons for divorce which carry the right of remarriage, then Jesus lied to the Pharisees and to his disciples.

Jesus said, "except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" (John 3:5). Did he mean that baptism is one of several ways to enter the kingdom, or did he mean that baptism is the only way into the kingdom? Our Lord also said, "as the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me" (John 15:4). Did Jesus mean that abiding in him is one of several ways to bear fruit? Most members of the church understand the import of John 3:5 and 15:4. Consistency needs to be applied to Matthew 19:9.

It has been said that the divorce, or the breaking of the marriage covenant itself, is adultery. Jesus never attempted to convey that message. The text at hand states that the state of adultery is entered, when he who divorces for any reason save fornication, shall marry another. The state of adultery (C) is a continual state as long as the prior conditions (A and B) are left in place. The only way in which C can be reversed is to break the continuity between A and B. In other words, as John kept on telling Herod, it is not lawful for the one of whom A and B are true to have the object which makes C exist.

"...Committeth adultery" --- translates a verb in the present tense, the force of which is continual action. It means, "keeps on committing adultery." Mark's record demonstrates that Jesus' teaching on this subject is the same for either partner in the marriage (Mark 10:11-12). The place of the woman is indeed restored in Christ.

The prohibitive force of Jesus' teaching is clear: "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder" (Mark 10:9; Matt. 19:6; I Cor. 7:11). Remember, Jesus had been asked about the practice of "putting away." The Lord's answer is clear. Jesus says, "what God joined together, let not man sever." God knits two together in authorized marriage. This double-harness of marriage is joined or fastened by God, the supreme one. Man, an inferior being to God, is not to sever or unfasten that harness. The joining of the Lord is for life (I Cor. 7:32). Jesus said do not do it! Do not sever that joining of God!

What if one violates this prohibition by putting away, or departing from a mate, for any reason except fornication? "But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife" (I Cor. 7:11). Yes, there are "eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake" (Matt. 19:12). Sadly, Maxey's doctrine discourages those who need to be eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake, and it encourages adulterers to keep on living in sin!

In Him,

• Darrell Broking

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